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Consider Locke's influence on Abraham Lincoln. Both Lincoln and his rival Stephen Douglas professed that consent was necessary to grant slavery legal status in the US. However, the concept of consent is pivotal. Why does Smith consider Stephen Douglas' concept of consent to slavery to be flawed logic?
Also, consider the rights of private ownership in the United States. As these rights are not directly spelled out in the Constitution, it can be said that Locke's influence was once again a driving philosophical force in the American mind as the Industrial Revolution was progressing.
Source: Steven Smith
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